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Hi- Everyone
I've used Xilinx before.
In Xilinx, PL(FPGA part) and PS(CPU part) are separate.
Of course, you can use it in the PL part and also in the PS part.
Is the question the same in Intel FPGA chips?
More specifically, is there any problem with using it in the PL(FPGA) part?
Thanks!
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Not sure what you mean. If you are referring to a stand-alone FPGA (not an SoC), then you would use one of the EMIF IP to access off-chip DDR4, making use of the resources in the device dedicated to this. If you are talking about an SoC FPGA, then you can implement an EMIF in the FPGA side or via the HPS (hard processor system).
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Not sure what you mean. If you are referring to a stand-alone FPGA (not an SoC), then you would use one of the EMIF IP to access off-chip DDR4, making use of the resources in the device dedicated to this. If you are talking about an SoC FPGA, then you can implement an EMIF in the FPGA side or via the HPS (hard processor system).
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