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I am reviewing some legacy Fortran code implementing a numerical algorithm and it contains the statement IMPLICIT UNDEFINED (A-H,O-Z). I have never come across such a statement before. Is it the same as IMPLICIT NONE? It should be fairly easy to comment out or replace.
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It is an old Sun Fortran extension. You can replace it by IMPLICIT NONE and move on.
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It is an old Sun Fortran extension. You can replace it by IMPLICIT NONE and move on.
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An extension for sure, but with more than one vendor:
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Take care that
IMPLICIT UNDEFINED (A-H,O-Z)
will leave I-N implicitly defined
IMPLICIT NONE
will undefine all variables.
For me, if it is legal :
IMPLICIT NONE
IMPLICIT INTEGER (I-N)
will only be equivalent to
IMPLICIT UNDEFINED (A-H,O-Z)
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It is legal to have multiple IMPLICIT statements as long as there is only one IMPLICIT NONE.
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The two statements are not equivalent. One defines I,J,K,L,M and N as INTEGER while the other doesn't.
mecej4 wrote:
It is an old Sun Fortran extension. You can replace it by IMPLICIT NONE and move on.
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Hi
I presumed that if the IMPLICIT UNDEFINED (A-H,O-Z) statement was used in this code it was because the compiler used to compile it always define implicit types (A-H,O-Z) as real and (I-N) as integer as old compilers used to. So the aim of this statement was to keep integer variables defined.
Otherwise, the IMPLICIT NONE statement would have been used.
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